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Geography 1
Pretest For Final Exam
1. Based on the pH scale soils are neutral at _____.
b) 7.5
c) 8.0
d) 6.5
e) 6.0
2. The pedogenic regime associated with the tropical moist climates is _____.
a) podzolization
b) salinization
c) laterization
d) gleization
e) calcification
3. The pedogenic regime typified by silica removal and iron-aluminum concentration near the surface is __________.
a) laterization
b) podzolization
c) gleization
d) calcification
e) salinization
4. On the standard pH scale, the number 10 indicates a __________ soil.
a) acid
b) neutral
c) basic
d) fine-textured
e) porous
5. The unconsolidated parent materials beneath the level of roots is called the _____ horizon of soil.
a)O
b) A
c) B
d) C
e) bedrock
6. The pedogenic regime associated with high annual precipitation and temperature is _____.
a) gleization
b) laterization
c) calcification
d) salinization
e) none of the above
7. Which pH reading is "preferred" by most plants and soil microorganisms?
a) 0
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
e) 10
8. The smallest-sized pieces of a soil are ________ _____.
a) sands
b) gravels
c) clays
d) silts
e) cobbles
9. In the process of calcification, grass roots tend to bring up _____ from the B horizon.
a) clay
b) phosphorus
c) gravel
d) calcium
e) selenium
10. Which is NOT among the main soil-forming factors?
a) climate
b) photosynthesis
c) slope
d) time
e) all of the above
11. The dynamic relationship between precipitation and evaporation in any given location is the _____.
a) capillary action
b) leaching
c) illuviation
d) soil-water balance
e) all of the above
12. Mature tropical soils are generally noteworthy for their ________ color.
a) black
b) tan
c) red
d) white
e) gray
13. A dense layer, often forming in the B horizon under calcification is __________.
a) solum
b) regolith
c) a hard pan
d) a latosol
e) vadose
14. The main pedogenic regimes do NOT include _____.
a) calcification
b) colloidization
c) podzolization
d) salinization
e) gleization
15. Soils are considered part of the
a) lithosphere
b) hydrosphere
c) geosphere
d) atmosphere
e) biosphere
16. In terms of topography, the deepest soils
a) are at the bottoms of hills
b) are on the sides of hills
c) are at the tops of hills
d) are on steep hills with sandstone bedrock
e) can be found in any of the above locations
17. The soil-forming factor which is said to make soil more than "just dirt" is the __________ factor.
a) climate
b) biological
c) topographic
d) geologic
e) chronologic
18. Early work in soil science was done by the ______.
a) Germans
b) Russians
c) Mexicans
d) Canadians
e) Chinese
19. Which pedogenic regime is most closely associated with the drier prairies of North America?
a) gleization
b) salinization
c) laterization
d) calcification
e) podzolization
True/False
20. Podzols are a type of soil which evolve in the world's arid climates.
21. In semiarid climates there is a tendency for calcium carbonate to build up in a hardpan layer beneath the surface.
22. The process of eluviation in soils is the same thing as leaching.
23. In the long run, temperature and moisture are the prime determinants of soil characteristics.
24. Soil microorganisms must be destroyed to facilitate agricultural productivity.
25. The deposition of finer particles at a lower level in the soil is illuviation.
26. In cool climates, areas of poor drainage have a pedogenic regime of gleization.
27. Hardpan is a calcium carbonate concentration in the B horizon.
28. Bacteria are among the most important of all soil fauna.
29. Soil is considered to include dead and dying organic matter.
30. Soils which have formed from salinization are associated with the need for irrigation.
31. Which of the following is considered part of the soil?
a) fine, fragmented mineral particles
b) water
c) air
d) dead and rotting plant parts
e) all of the above
32. The deepest soils are usually ___________.
a) located randomly on the landscape
b) difficult to locate
c) on the tops of hills
d) on the sides of hills
e) on flat land
33. Most soil development takes place __________.
a) within seconds
b) within hours
c) within days
d) within years
e) on scales of time longer than humnan life spans
34. The igneous rocks which were deposited on the surface and then cooled are known as _____.
a) clastic
b) core
c) intrusive
d) extrusive
e) detrital
35. Sedimentary rocks are the most common bedrock on the continents and comprise about _____ percent of the surface.
a) 5
b) 25
c) 55
d) 75
e) 95
36. When subjected to metamorphism, limestone becomes _____.
a) gneiss
b) basalt
c) schist
d) marble
e) sandstone
37. In the formation of igneous rocks, large crystal size is closely related to ___________.
a) percentage of silica
b) percentage of oxygen
c) fast cooling
d) slow cooling
e) absence of light
38. A feature such as a continental platform would be a _____ order landform.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
e) 5th
39. The present estimate of the earth's age is about _____ years.
a) 50 million
b) 500 million
c) 2.8 billion
d) 4.6 billion
e) none of the above
40. The Rocky Mountains started to be uplifted ______ years ago.
a) 0.65 million
b) 6.5 million
c) 65 million
d) 650 million
e) 6.5 billion
41. Which of the following illustrates the concept of "relief"?
a) Uplift of sediments after erosion of overlying sediments
b) The vertical distance between lowest and highest points in an area
c) The cessation of volcanic activity
d) The substitution of one subaerial process for another
e) All of the above
42. Erosion, compaction, and sedimentation are most closely associated with which rock type?
a) basalt
b) metamorphic
c) igneous
d) intrusive
e) sedimentary
True/False
43. According to the concepts of plate tectonics, the continents of Africa and South America are gradually changing their distance from each other.
44. Granite is a type of rock which has cooled from magma.
45. The theory of continental drift was revived and expanded in the __________.
a) 1700s
b) 1800s
c) 1910s
d) 1960s
e) 1990s
46. The concept of plate tectonics ______.
a) means Africa and South America were once joined
b) is well-accepted by Earth scientists
c) was proven only a few decades ago
d) is described correctly by all of the above
e) is not described correctly by any of the above
47. Crater Lake, Oregon, is an example of a volcanic __________ .
a) lava flow
b) peak
c) caldera
d) batholith
e) neck
48. In folded terrain, a simple downfold is termed a(an) _____.
a) monocline
b) anticline
c) syncline
d) overthrust fold
e) magma
49. A crustal block which is downthrown with a steep fault scarp on either side is a _________.
a) fault block mountain
b) horst
c) graben
d) rift valley
e) syncline
50. The first comprehensive theory of continental drift was propounded by _____.
a) Darwin
b) Koppen
c) Wegener
d) Wallace
e) Sagan
51. A simple symmetrical upfold is called a(n) _____.
a) syncline
b) anticline
c) monocline
d) inselberg
e) none of the above
52. A volcano that does not seem to have the potential to erupt again is termed __________.
a) active
b) passive
c) dormant
d) extinct
e) none of the above
53. In some regions, like the American West, grabens are commonly found in association with _____.
a) concretions
b) horsts
c) sag ponds
d) batholiths
e) none of the above
54. The island of Krakatau disappeared in a volcanic explosion. Krakatau was located ___________.
a) in the ocean off of California
b) in the Gulf of Alaska
c) in the southern Pacific Ocean
d) in the Mediterranean Sea
e) in the Arctic Ocean
55. Which of the following is one of the "great triumphs of the theory of plate tectonics"?
a) The ability to explain oceanic trenches.
b) The ability to explain midoceanic ridges.
c) The ability to explain many volcanic zones.
d) The ability to explain many earthquake zones.
e) All of the above
56. Which of the following refers to the surface of the Earth directly above the center of an earthquake?
a) seismic zone
b) epicenter
c) nadir
d) focus
e) none of the above
57. A tsunami is
a) a common occurrence in the central U.S.
b) a large earthquake which kills humans
c) another term for a seismic sea wave
d) unknown in tropical places like Hawaii
e) the glowing blast of an exploded volcano
58. Which of the following are fault-block mountains?
a) Sierra Nevada
b) Ozarks
c) Cascades
d) Appalachians
e) Rockies
True/False
59. It has been calculated that the 1906 San Francisco earthquake reached over 8 points on the Richter scale.
60. An example of creep would be ______.
a) a cracked sidewalk
b) a house engulfed in mud
c) broken retaining walls
d) a sinking land surface
e) the San Andreas Fault
61. Which of the following must take place FIRST during the denudation of a landscape?
a) weathering
b) erosion
c) mass wasting
d) they must occur simultaneously
e) none of them must occur first
62. The single most important weathering agent is
a) carbon dioxide
b) water vapor
c) liquid water
d) oxygen
e) nitrogen
63. The greatest amount of material transported by a stream is carried in its ______.
a) dissolved load
b) suspended load
c) bed load
d) traction
e) saltation
64. This drainage pattern looks like the veins on the underside of a leaf:
a) trellis
b) radial
c) dendritic
d) annular
e) centripetal
65. Rivers eroding into a land surface, in the absence of other forces, usually tend to erode a ______ -shaped form.
a) groove
b) V
c) U
d) flat bottomed
e) delta
66. The most prominent of all depositional landscapes is the ______.
a) oxbow lake
b) cut-off
c) meander scar
d) floodplain
e) backswamps
67. A steep walled defile with a V-shaped profile and narrow valley floor would, according to the geomorphic cycle, be in the ______ stage.
a) youthful
b) mature
c) old age
d) peneplain
e) equilibrium
68. A typical drainage pattern on conic volcanic mountains would be ______.
a) dendritic
b) trellis
c) radial
d) centripetal
e) antecedent
69. A flat alluvium-floored valley with fairly steep walls and a stream beginning to meander would be in the ______ stage of the erosion cycle.
a) youth
b) mature
c) old age
d) peneplain
e) bajada
70. The process in which small particles are moved along by streamflow or wind in a series of jumps or bounces is ______.
a) saltation
b) traction
c) meandering
d) base level
e) turbulence
71. The drainage pattern common in ridge and valley landscapes is ______.
a) annular
b) trellis
c) disorganized
d) centripetal
e) dendritic
72. Death Valley is below sea level. Therefore, in Death Valley, base level is ______ ultimate base level.
a) higher than
b) lower than
c) equal to
d) not related to
e) unchanging with respect to
73. During low water cycles, any channel bottom change is likely to undergo _________.
a) aggradation
b) degradation
c) saltation
d) nivation
e) none of the above
74. Any stream may lengthen its valley by ___________ and delta formation.
a) headward erosion
b) siltation
c) saltation
d) alluvial deposition
e) none of the above
75. The general term applied to stream-deposited debris is __________.
a) sediments
b) alluvium
c) capacity
d) discharge
e) bedload
True/False
76. A principal consequence of vegetation removal is accelerated erosion.
77. Considerable energy of a stream's action is used up by frictional retardation.
78. Water is more important than wind in its role as a sculptor of terrain.
79. Floods actually do most of the work in carving great valleys and forming floodplains.
80. The Spanish word for table applied to flat topped landforms in the American West is ____________
a) barranca
b) arroyo
c) bajada
d) mesa
e) frijole
81. In basin and range topography, the lowest areas are frequently occupied by a(n) ______.
a) barchan
b) playa
c) escarpment
d) bajada
e) seif
82. The main dune form in most deserts is crescent shaped and is migrating across a non-sand surface; it is called a(n) ______.
a) barchan
b) bajada
c) seif
d) transverse
e) alluvial
83. A shallow depression from which an abundance of fine material has been deflated is known as a deflation hollow or ____.
a) seif
b) blowout
c) tombolo
d) barchan
e) swash
84. A rare type of feature left after wind removes the finer particles and allows the larger rocks and pebbles to join together is the ______.
a) wadi
b) erg
c) hamada
d) desert pavement
e) reg
85. Alluvial fans which have expanded and joined over time form a landscape feature known as a(n) ______.
a) plinth
b) bajada
c) slip face
d) sand plain
e) alkali flat
86. The single most important force in shaping coastal topography is(are) the ______.
a) waves
b) longshore current
c) tidal movement
d) ice push
e) stream outflow
87. An island connected to the coastline by a sandy spit is a relatively rare occurrence called a ______.
a) baymouth bar
b) tombolo
c) fjord
d) hook
e) lagoon
88. Most waves are generated by ______.
a) tides
b) wind
c) seismic activity
d) coastal refraction
e) vulcanism
89. Which of the following is most closely associated with fjords?
a) Chemical erosion
b) Longshore drift
c) Coral
d) Glaciers
e) None of the above
90. Coral reef types include ___________.
a) barrier
b) fringing
c) atolls
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
91. Most present atolls are on former ______ islands.
a) volcanic
b) granite
c) karst
d) tombolo
e) barrier
92. Water moving roughly parallel to the shoreline is called ________.
a) stream outflow
b) swash
c) longshore currents
d) oblique waves
e) backwash
True/False
93. Beaches are ephemeral in longevity and are very temporary in form.
94. Hills rounded and sheared off by glacial erosion are called ______.
a) moraines
b) roche moutonnees
c) calderas
d) kettles
e) till
95. The shape of a ______ can be likened to an amphitheater.
a) roche moutonnee
b) horn
c) arete
d) cirque
e) till
96. The maximum extent of a glacier is marked by a ______.
a) hanging valley
b) lateral moraine
c) terminal moraine
d) valley train
e) tarn
97. ______ is granular snow which is beginning to coalesce into glacial ice.
a) Neve
b) Ablation
c) A cirque
d) An esker
e) A tarn
98. After a tributary to a large alpine glacier has melted, water running from it creates a ______.
a) moraine
b) till
c) waterfall
d) cirque
e) kame
99. A huge boulder resting on a completely different type of bedrock in glacial zones is a(n) ______.
a) cirque
b) till
c) nunatak
d) outwash plain
e) erratic
100. A dark band of rock debris down the middle of a glacier from the union of two adjacent glaciers is a(n)____.
a) kame
b) medial moraine
c) lateral moraine
d) terminal moraine
e) arete
101. A group of cirques eroding a mountain peak creates a sharp peak is called a(n)____.
a) horn
b) cyclopean step
c) arete
d) tarn
e) truncated spurs
102. Long sinuous ridges of stratified drift are termed ______.
a) kettles
b) kames
c) aretes
d) eskers
e) outwash plains
103. Depositional materials from glaciers formed during a lengthy pause in the glacial period are ______.
a) terminal moraines
b) recessional moraines
c) lateral moraines
d) eskers
e) till plains
104. The first feature carved by a mountain glacier is a(n) ______.
a) arete
b) horn
c) cirque
d) moraine
e) erratic
105. Glaciers carve ____-shaped valleys.
a) V
b) U
c) Q
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
106. The slow melting of blocks of stagnant ice in the land surface is the cause of ____________.
a) cirques
b) kettle holes
c) eskers
d) rouche moutonee's
e) ground moraines
107. During the last Ice Age, sea level was __________.
a) a few centimeters lower than today's sea level
b) a few centimeters higher than today's sea level
c) the same as today's sea level
d) much lower than today's sea level
e) much higher than today's sea level
True/False
108. Hanging valleys occur where the mouths of tributary valleys are perched high along the sides of the major stream valleys.
109. U-shaped stream valleys are indicators that a stream valley has been glaciated.
110. A piedmont glacier is a type of highland glacier.
** END **
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. d
10. b
11. d
12. c
13. c
14. b
15. a
16. a
17. b
18. b
19. d
20. False
21. True
22. True
23. True
24. False
25. True
26. True
27. True
28. True
29. True
30. True
31. e
32. e
33. e
34. d
35. d
36. d
37. d
38. a
39. d
40. c
41. b
42. e
43. True
44. True
45. d
46. d
47. c
48. c
49. c
50. c
51. b
52. d
53. b
54. c
55. e
56. b
57. c
58. a
59. True
60. c
61. a
62. c
63. b
64. c
65. b
66. d
67. a
68. c
69. b
70. a
71. b
72. b
73. a
74. a
75. b
76. True
77. True
78. True
79. True
80. d
81. b
82. a
83. b
84. d
85. b
86. a
87. b
88. b
89. d
90. d
91. a
92. c
93. True
94. b
95. d
96. c
97. a
98. c
99. e
100. b
101. a
102. d
103. b
104. c
105. b
106. b
107. d
108. True
109. True
110. True